Posted By docjenser on 15 Jan 2012 11:20 PM
Please disregard the "absolutely the same" and replace it with "similar".
Not a rational comparison. Why would you expect two vastly different
bore depths to expose the pipes to "similar" geology and hydrology?
The stuff coming up from my 450' bore wasn't even close to uniform
for the entire depth. Mostly rock (in MANY colors), several pockets of
sand, plus two or three underground streams (according to the driller).
BTW, if jonr's calculation-free handwaving constitutes a "good point,"
please explain why the 1.25" pipe shows only an 11% advantage --
rather than the 60%-ish advantage that his [pardon the expression]
"model" would predict?
Sorry, but the calculation based on the (constant) ratio of diameter to
wall thickness already accounts for diameter effects
once. You can't
count it a
second time, or you're gonna end up with HUGE disparity
between calculated and actual results. ...as jonr ably demonstrates.
Which model would you trust more? ...off by 11%? ...or off by 50%?